First of all: I'm sorry for the bunch of words, but I guess it's important for you to know the history, also I need to be sure I'm doing well with my thought process. So If you decide to keep reading I will be grateful enough.

I'll try to share you my thinking process and I would like to be corrected by you, guys: 

Preflop: So, I'm limping J8s because sometimes He Raises over my limps NAI, and I'm mixing my range with 99+ AT+ because He uses to shove over my limps on a wide way. (If His move were only shoving over my limps(just like most of the players on my stake level), probably I would limp trashy hands 72o,85o-.. instead of medium hands, and mixing it with premiums hands, I didn't see this on any video but I like to do this especially when his 3bet range is tight or especially tighter than his ROL range and his postflop play on a limped pot seems to be exploitable, so, 1st) I would like to be corrected if I'm wrong). 2nd) If the reasoning would be OK, should I include more good hands on my limping range because his low 3bet until He adapts? (If someday he decides to adapt, of course) 

Postflop: Well, the reason to float his x/raise is bcause I saw him making a donkbet+barreling 3streets with nuts (straight) on a medium cards board in limped pot before and I don't expect that such a macroregular multitabling player is gonna play randomly enough. So, I flatted to try to steal the pot on later streets (especially overcards.. or when He shows weakness), also, I can have some good 'turns' for my hand, 3rd) what do you think about this postflop adaptations? am I levelling against?

Here is his stats and the action, and btw, just for curious, 5th) If I feel opponent's range is capped, should I try to outplay him by raising or overbetting? (I feel I'm being overbeted by regulars when my range is capped) 6th) If so, there is need to have a polarized range of overbet?

Thanks for reading and now I hope you can answer all my questions because all of them are trully important to me